← All rooms

Room 15 of 20

John 1:18

No man hath seen God

Verse

No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

Why they use it

They say no one has seen God, so Joseph’s First Vision is a lie.

Why they are wrong

John says the Son reveals the Father. Exodus still has Moses speaking with the Lord face to face.

The room (aka the context)

Who wrote it
John.
Who is in the room
A church that has never stood in the wilderness with Moses.
Who is speaking
The narrator, still in the prologue.
What is going on
He is saying the Son reveals the Father. He is not shredding Exodus. The same Bible has Moses face to face, Isaiah’s throne vision, Stephen seeing the Son of Man standing on the right hand of God.
What they already believe
The Father is made known in the Son. Ordinary eyes do not stroll into that glory uninvited.
How they would hear these words
No one has seen God — meaning the Father in His full glory on their own. God still shows Himself to whom He will. Joseph is in that biblical line, not against it.

Clarifying verse

Exodus 33:11

And the LORD spake unto Moses face to face, as a man speaketh unto his friend.

If John 1:18 is a total ban, Moses is a liar and Acts 7 is a hallucination. FAIR: God chooses whom He shows. The ban is on the casual gaze, not on theophanies.

Gal1:8 topic →

Mark it

Tap when you can say the verse out loud.